Question about Prophet Muhammad (PBUH)

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sati55
Posts: 9
Joined: Mon Oct 03, 2005 9:50 am

Question about Prophet Muhammad (PBUH)

Post by sati55 »

I have been asked this question by some jews and christians.

After prophet Ibrahim(PBUH), all the prophets were sent to the jews (children of Israel). No prophets were sent to Arabs (descendants of Ismael) for long time... until Prophet Muhammad (PBUH).

Jews and christians see it irrational that God sent the last prophet to Arabs.

I mean... when you think about it... why many prophets to jews, nothing to Arabs (during the same period) and then after long time the last prophet is sent to Arabs.
kmaherali
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Joined: Thu Mar 27, 2003 3:01 pm

Post by kmaherali »

I will begin my response with aquote from the “Extract from The Memoirs of the Aga Khan by H.H. The Aga Khan III”.

“First, however, we must ask ourselves why this final and consummate appearance of the Divine Will was granted to mankind, and what were its causes. All Islamic schools of thought accept it as a fundamental principle that for centuries, for thousands of years before the advent of Mohammed, there arose from time to time messengers, illumined by Divine Grace, for and among those races of the earth which had sufficiently advanced intellectually to comprehend such a message. Thus Abraham, Moses, Jesus and all the Prophets of Israel are universally accepted by Islam. Muslims indeed know no limitation merely to the Prophets of Israel; they are ready to admit that there were similar Divinely inspired messengers in other countriesGautama Buddha, Shri Krishna and Shri Ram in India, Socrates in Greece, the wise man of China and many other sages and saints among peoples and civilizations, trace of which we have lost. Thus man's soul has never been left without a specially inspired messenger from the soul that sustains, embraces and is the universe. Then what need was there for a Divine revelation to Mohammed ?

The answer of Islam is precise and clear. In spite of its great spiritual strength, Jewish monotheism has retained two characteristics which render it essentially different from Islamic monotheism: God has remained, in spite of all, a national and racial God for the children of Israel, and His personality is entirely separate from its supreme manifestation, the Universe. In far-distant countries such as India and China, the purity of the Faith in the one God had been so vitiated by polytheism, by idolatry and even by a pantheism which was hardly distinguishable from atheism that these popular and folklore religions bore little resemblance to that which emanated from the true and pure Godhead. Christianity lost its strength and meaning for Muslims in that it saw it great and glorious founder not as a man but as God incarnate in man, as God made Flesh. Thus there was an absolute need for the Divine Word's revelation, to Mohammed himself, a man like the others, of God's person and of his relations to the Universe which he had created.”

From the above we can see that the message of Islam is universal and not confined to any particular geographic area. While the prophets were sent to Israel, the line of Imamat (lineage from Ismael) continued at least in part in Arabia. Hazarat Ali was not the first Imam although the first manifest one. The ancestors of Ali prepared the groundwork for the last revelation. Prophet Muhammad was brought up by Abu Talib the father of the Hazarat Ali.

Also as stated by the Imam above, Israel’s true and original beliefs were corrupted and Allah had to find a “barren” place which would meet minimal resistance to the new message.
arzimood
Posts: 31
Joined: Sun Apr 24, 2005 9:17 am

Post by arzimood »

just because thae topic is under discussion, i want to confirm as to we Holy Prophet, Hazrat Muhammad Mustafa (Peace Be upon Him) belongs to Bani Hashim right? Will saying that He belongs to Bani Israel correct?
kmaherali
Posts: 25705
Joined: Thu Mar 27, 2003 3:01 pm

Post by kmaherali »

arzimood wrote:just because thae topic is under discussion, i want to confirm as to we Holy Prophet, Hazrat Muhammad Mustafa (Peace Be upon Him) belongs to Bani Hashim right? Will saying that He belongs to Bani Israel correct?
The answer to the first question would be right. As to the second question, in "The Concise Encyclopedia of Islam", it is stated:

"Banu Israel (lit. "the Children of Israel"). The name by which the Koran commonly calls the Jews, whom it calls also 'alladhina hadu' ('those that practice Jewish rites")."

By the above definition it appears that the Prophet was not a Banu Israel.
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